As the Digital SAT evolves, mastering grammar remains essential for achieving a high score in the Reading and Writing section. While many students focus on transition words, understanding sentence structure, clause boundaries, and punctuation is equally important.
Test your grammar skills with these 12 challenging SAT practice questions covering subject-verb agreement, restrictive clauses, appositives, parenthetical elements, and sentence boundaries. Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation to help you understand the grammar rules tested on the Digital SAT.
SAT Grammar Practice Questions: Test Your Skills
| Question 1 |
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| In biology, many initially disordered systems will naturally move toward greater order according to the principle of self-organization, a conceptual framework for pattern _____ biologists believe can be used to explain a range of organic phenomena, from population dynamics to the sociality of bees and ants. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. formation. Some
B. formation; some
C. formation that some
D. formation, that some
Answer: C
Skill Tested: Restrictive Relative Clauses
Explanation:
The noun phrase “a conceptual framework for pattern formation” is modified by a restrictive relative clause introduced by “that”. The phrase “some biologists believe” acts as an embedded parenthetical subject/verb within the clause (“that [some biologists believe] can be used…”). No punctuation should separate the head noun from the restrictive relative pronoun “that”.
| Question 2 |
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| Conceptual artist Joan Jonas’s first work, Wind (1968), is a silent film depicting people on a beach struggling to move about in extremely windy conditions. Wind has been recognized for bringing the principles of postmodern dance—which demystifies choreography by foregrounding traditional features of movement that ballet and other classical dance forms obscure (such as clumsiness, weightiness, resistance, and _____ to video. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. gravity),
B. gravity);
C. gravity)
D. gravity)—
Answer: D
Skill Tested: Parenthetical Phrases and Nested Structures
Explanation:
The main clause structure is “bringing the principles of postmodern dance … to video.” The em dash (—) opens a nonessential parenthetical thought defining postmodern dance. That parenthetical thought contains a parenthetical list enclosed in parentheses (…). To close the primary nonessential element that began with the opening em dash, a closing em dash is required after the parenthesis. Therefore, the parenthesis closes the list (such as clumsiness, weightiness, resistance, and gravity), and the em dash closes the larger parenthetical insert before returning to the main predicate “to video”.
| Question 3 |
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| In a 2022 study, Wang et al. concluded that artifacts excavated from an archaeological site date to between 39,000 and 41,000 years ago. The reliability of the dates that Wang et al. have posited, which were obtained through processes that determined when buried mineral grains surrounding the ocher artifacts were last exposed to sunlight, _____ in part upon the researchers’ exclusion of mineral grains that lacked adequate sun exposure before burial. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. depending
B. depend
C. having depended
D. depends
Answer: D
Skill Tested: Subject-Verb Agreement
Explanation:
Strip away the intervening nonessential clause (“which were obtained through processes…”). The subject of the main sentence is the singular noun phrase “The reliability”. A finite singular verb is needed to complete the main clause predicate: “The reliability … depends in part upon…”
| Question 4 |
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| In 1977, legendary Puerto Rican performer Rita Moreno won an Emmy Award, making her one of the rare talents to earn the highest honors in television, music, film, and stage entertainment—the Emmy, Grammy, Oscar, and Tony _____ the achievement is known as “winning the EGOT.” |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. awards, respectively
B. awards; respectively
C. awards, respectively—
D. awards, respectively;
Answer: D
Skill Tested: Sentence Structure & Punctuation Boundaries
Explanation:
The first complete independent clause ends after “respectively”, with the em dash setting off an appositive list (“the Emmy, Grammy, Oscar, and Tony awards, respectively”). A second complete independent clause begins with “the achievement is known as…”. To link two independent clauses without a coordinating conjunction, use a semicolon (D).
| Question 5 |
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| Polymers used in industrial applications are weakened by environmental stress, mechanical fatigue, and unexpected damage. However, new types of polymers have been engineered to repair ______ aided by embedded microcapsules, such materials begin to self-heal. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. themselves — upon fracture —
B. themselves. Upon fracture,
C. themselves upon fracture,
D. themselves, upon fracture,
Answer: B
Skill Tested: Linking Independent Clauses
Explanation:
The text consists of two independent clauses:
- “However, new types of polymers have been engineered to repair themselves.”
- “Upon fracture, aided by embedded microcapsules, such materials begin to self-heal.”
Joining these two independent clauses requires a terminal punctuation mark (a period) or a semicolon. Option B correctly separates the two clauses with a period and attaches the introductory prepositional phrase “Upon fracture” to the second sentence.
| Question 6 |
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| Social media platforms have made the collection of qualitative human behavioral data easier than ever. To collect such data by means of social media does raise a serious ethical _________ terms of service stipulate that platforms can analyze users’ accounts and posts, according to sociologist Jose van Dijck, users are not informed when their data are included in behavioral studies. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. concern, though;
B. concern: though
C. concern, though
D. concern, though:
Answer: B
Skill Tested: Colons & Subordinating Conjunctions
Explanation:
The first clause introduces a general statement (“does raise a serious ethical concern”). A colon is appropriate here to introduce an explanation or elaboration of that concern. The subordinating conjunction “though” introduces the dependent clause “though terms of service stipulate…”, which contrasts with the main clause “users are not informed…”. Option B correctly places the colon after “concern” to introduce the detailed explanation.
| Question 7 |
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| Alberto Gabriele, author of Reading Popular Culture in Victorian Print, tracks the transnational dissemination of works by author Mary Elizabeth Braddon via the magazine ______ from 1866 to 1899 and distributed throughout the Australian cities of Melbourne, Adelaide, and Hobart; the continental European cities of Brussels, Paris, and Turin; and cities in Turkey, India, and Jamaica, this magazine helped make Braddon’s serialized novels globally available. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. Belgravia, published
B. Belgravia published
C. Belgravia; published
D. Belgravia. Published
Answer: D
Skill Tested: Sentence Boundaries & Participial Modifiers
Explanation:
The passage consists of two independent sentences:
- “Alberto Gabriele … tracks the transnational dissemination of works by author Mary Elizabeth Braddon via the magazine Belgravia.”
- “Published from 1866 to 1899 and distributed throughout … this magazine helped make Braddon’s serialized novels globally available.”
Because the second sentence opens with a long participial modifier (“Published from 1866 to 1899…”), the preceding independent sentence must end with a period (D).
| Question 8 |
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| Brothers Orville and Wilbur Wright famously received a patent for their flying machine on May 22, 1906. Louisiana native Charles F. Page, who was born into slavery and self-educated, created a gas-powered flying ship in 1903 that was officially patented on April 10,______ only model had been suspiciously destroyed en route to a planned demonstration at the 1904 World’s Fair, and, discouraged, he never built a replacement. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. 1906 — roughly six weeks earlier. Page’s
B. 1906. Roughly six weeks earlier, Page’s
C. 1906 roughly six weeks earlier, Page’s
D. 1906 — roughly six weeks earlier — Page’s
Answer: A
Skill Tested: Parenthetical Modifiers & Clause Boundaries
Explanation:
The date April 10, 1906, occurred roughly six weeks prior to May 22, 1906. The phrase “roughly six weeks earlier” acts as a parenthetical modifier clarifying the relationship between the two dates in the sentence. Setting it off with an em dash (“1906 — roughly six weeks earlier”) completes that modifier, and ending the sentence with a period allows a new independent clause (“Page’s only model had been suspiciously destroyed…”) to begin cleanly.
| Question 9 |
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| A single specimen of N. vivans, collected at a depth of 129 fathoms (236 meters) in the Indian Ocean, and a single specimen of P. obliquiloculata, collected at a depth of 260 fathoms (475 meters) in the South Atlantic, have been preserved as exemplars of their respective _____ former in a repository at Washington, DC’s Museum of Natural History and the latter in a repository at London’s Natural History Museum. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. species. The
B. species, the
C. species; the
D. species, and the
Answer: B
Skill Tested: Appositive Phrases at Clause Ends
Explanation:
The second portion of the sentence (“the former in a repository… and the latter in a repository…”) is a compound noun phrase functioning as an appositive that elaborates on “their respective species”. An appositive phrase located at the end of a sentence is correctly attached to the main clause using a comma (B).
| Question 10 |
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| Researchers recently theorized that Copper Age (3500 BCE to 2750 BCE) owl-shaped carvings collected from Iberian archaeological sites were likely toys created by children. This hypothesis, based on comparative analyses of owl drawings made by modern children, is supported by the objects predominantly being crafted from slate—a material that, because of its _____ be easily carved by small hands using rudimentary tools. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. malleability—could
B. malleability, could
C. malleability could
D. malleability could—
Answer: B
Skill Tested: Nonessential Prepositional Phrases
Explanation:
Inside the relative clause introduced by “that”, the phrase “because of its malleability” is an inserted nonessential prepositional modifier. Since it is preceded by a comma after “that”, it must be followed by a matching comma before the verb “could”: “a material that, because of its malleability, could be easily carved…”
| Question 11 |
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| In pre-Columbian Mesoamerica, obsidian was used as a commodity currency. By using specific goods like obsidian as common units of exchange, commodity currency economies streamline trade, which is why they often replaced barter economies. Barter economies eschew ______ that requires what economist W.S. Jevons deems a “double coincidence of wants”—in other words, each trading party must want precisely what the other has. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. currency, in favor of a direct trade system
B. currency in favor of a direct trade system
C. currency, in favor of a direct trade system,
D. currency—in favor of a direct trade system
Answer: B
Skill Tested: Essential Prepositional Phrases
Explanation:
The phrase “in favor of a direct trade system” is essential to the meaning of the verb “eschew” (barter economies eschew [X] in favor of [Y]). Setting off “in favor of a direct trade system” with commas or dashes would incorrectly turn it into a nonessential element and distort the sentence’s logic.
| Question 12 |
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| For her installation The Last Cruze, photographer LaToya Ruby Frazier traveled to Lordstown, Ohio, where she documented the lives of workers at the local automobile plant. In the installation, text culled from a series of in-depth interviews with employees and their families ______ sixty-seven gelatin silver prints, highlighting the collaborative, documentary nature of Frazier’s work. |
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A. punctuating
B. are punctuated by
C. punctuate
D. punctuates
Answer: D
Skill Tested: Subject-Verb Agreement
Explanation:
The singular noun “text” is the subject of the clause (“text … punctuates sixty-seven gelatin silver prints”). The participle phrase “culled from a series of in-depth interviews with employees and their families” acts as a modifier. Therefore, the singular verb “punctuates” (D) correctly matches the singular subject “text”.
Why Are These SAT Practice Questions So Challenging?
- Unlike straightforward grammar exercises, challenging SAT practice questions often require you to analyze multiple grammatical structures within a single sentence.
- Long modifiers can obscure the main subject and verb, while subtle punctuation differences can change how clauses connect. The challenge is not simply knowing grammar rules, but recognizing how they apply to complex sentences.
- A useful strategy: Before choosing an answer, identify the main subject, verb, and clause boundaries. This can help you eliminate incorrect options more confidently.
When reviewing these questions, try identifying the main sentence structure before looking at the answer choices. This helps you focus on the grammatical relationship being tested rather than relying on what sounds correct.
5 Grammar Hacks to Solve Challenging SAT Questions Faster
Challenging SAT grammar questions often involve complex sentence structures and similar-looking answer choices. These five strategies can help you recognize common traps and identify the correct answer more efficiently.
1. Use Answer Choices to Identify the Grammar Rule
Before analyzing the entire sentence, compare the answer choices to see what changes. Differences in punctuation usually signal a sentence boundary question, while changes in verb forms often indicate subject-verb agreement or tense. Identifying these patterns first helps you focus on the specific grammar rule being tested.
2. Eliminate Grammatically Equivalent Answers
Some punctuation marks serve the same grammatical function. For example, both a period and a semicolon can separate two independent clauses. If two options differ only by these marks in the same position, neither can be the uniquely correct answer. Recognizing equivalent choices can help you eliminate incorrect options quickly.
3. Remove Interrupting Phrases
Long modifiers and parenthetical phrases can hide the main subject and verb. Temporarily remove these elements to reveal the sentence’s basic structure.
For example, “The collection of historical documents, including several rare manuscripts, is on display.” becomes “The collection is on display.” This makes it easier to recognize why the singular verb is is correct.
4. Identify Independent and Dependent Clauses
Before selecting punctuation, determine whether the words on either side form complete sentences. Two independent clauses can be connected by a semicolon or separated by a period, but a comma alone generally cannot connect them. Recognizing clause boundaries helps you avoid comma splices and sentence fragments.
5. Look for Paired Punctuation
Nonessential information is often enclosed by commas, em dashes, or parentheses. When a sentence contains an interrupting phrase, check how the punctuation opens and closes that element.
For example, “The scientist—whose research transformed modern biology—received an award.” The two em dashes enclose the nonessential clause, leaving a complete sentence when that clause is removed.
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